Research and Statistical Analysis
Research/statistical analysis:
Data Acquisition
Evaluation of source data
Probability
Forecasting
Information creation
Use of assumptions
72. Which of the following types of marketing research firms would best be described as being one that gathers consumer and trade information which they sell for a fee; for example, Nielsen Media Research?
a. 0 Custom marketing research firms
b. 0 Syndicated-service research firms
c. 0 Specialty-line marketing research firms
d. 0 General-line marketing research firms
e. 0 Non-profit marketing research firms
73. A scatter diagram
a. 0 is a graphic tool designed to portray the relationship between variables and uses interval or ratio scale data
b. 0 only relies on ration scale data
c. 0 does not allow negative values.
d. 0 is a graphic tool designed to portray the relationship between nominal data
e. 0 is not a reliable measurement of data
74. Events are independent if
a. 0 by virtue of one event happening another cannot.
b. 0 the probability of their occurrence is greater than 1.
c. 0 we can count the possible outcomes.
d. 0 the probability of one event happening does not affect the probability of another event happening
e. 0 none of these
75. If a marketing researcher selects the most accessible population members, he or she would have selected the ________ sampling method.
a. 0 simple random
b. 0 stratified random
c. 0 cluster
d. 0 judgment
e. 0 convenience
76. Which source of evidence to support experimental results is most threatened by the use of a field experiment?
a. 0 Agreement between the IV and DV
b. 0 Time order of the occurrence of the variables
c. 0 Control of contamination from extraneous variables
d. 0 Use of a control group
e. 0 Manipulation of the IV
77. A _____ scale is a scale that scores an object or property without making a direct comparison to another object or property
a. 0 ranking
b. 0 rating
c. 0 categorization
d. 0 sorting
e. 0 recording
Showing posts with label A. Show all posts
Showing posts with label A. Show all posts
Tuesday, June 12, 2012
STR Information Systems Section A
Information Systems Section
Information Systems
Information systems/technology
E-commerce
70. The modern business environment has all of the following characteristics EXCEPT
a. 0 global
b. 0 interconnected
c. 0 competitive
d. 0 relatively static
e. 0 real-time
71. The difference between target marketing and mass marketing is that target marketing
a. 0 means focusing on a small market
b. 0 focuses on short-run objectives, while mass marketing focuses on long-run objectives
c. 0 focuses on specific customers, while mass marketing aims at an entire market
d. 0 does not rely on e-commerce but mass marketing does
e. 0 aims at increased sales, while mass marketing focuses on increased profits
Information Systems
Information systems/technology
E-commerce
70. The modern business environment has all of the following characteristics EXCEPT
a. 0 global
b. 0 interconnected
c. 0 competitive
d. 0 relatively static
e. 0 real-time
71. The difference between target marketing and mass marketing is that target marketing
a. 0 means focusing on a small market
b. 0 focuses on short-run objectives, while mass marketing focuses on long-run objectives
c. 0 focuses on specific customers, while mass marketing aims at an entire market
d. 0 does not rely on e-commerce but mass marketing does
e. 0 aims at increased sales, while mass marketing focuses on increased profits
STR Economics Section A
Economics Section
Economic: ECO/561
Managerial economics
69. When drawing demand and supply curves, economists are assuming that the primary influence on production and purchasing decisions is
a. 0 price
b. 0 the cost of production
c. 0 the overall state of the economy
d. 0 consumer incomes
e. 0 real GDP
Economic: ECO/561
Managerial economics
69. When drawing demand and supply curves, economists are assuming that the primary influence on production and purchasing decisions is
a. 0 price
b. 0 the cost of production
c. 0 the overall state of the economy
d. 0 consumer incomes
e. 0 real GDP
STR Legal/Political: LAW/531 A
Legal/Political Section
Legal/Political: LAW/531
Legal and regulatory environment
68. Which of the following is correct regarding the Commerce Clause of the U.S. Constitution?
a. 0 The Commerce Clause places federal responsibility for judicial determination in the Commerce Department.
b. 0 The Commerce Clause cannot regulate business when it occurs within a state.
c. 0 The Commerce Clause can apply to a business that only does business in one state.
d. 0 The Commerce Clause can regulate commerce, but not the transportation of goods.
e. 0 The Commerce Clause regulated inter-state commerce only.
Legal/Political: LAW/531
Legal and regulatory environment
68. Which of the following is correct regarding the Commerce Clause of the U.S. Constitution?
a. 0 The Commerce Clause places federal responsibility for judicial determination in the Commerce Department.
b. 0 The Commerce Clause cannot regulate business when it occurs within a state.
c. 0 The Commerce Clause can apply to a business that only does business in one state.
d. 0 The Commerce Clause can regulate commerce, but not the transportation of goods.
e. 0 The Commerce Clause regulated inter-state commerce only.
STR Social Political Section A
Social Political Section
Social/Political
International business
Ethics and social responsibility
Diversity and culture
65. Although the U.S. has had a longstanding agreement with ___________, after the passage of NAFTA _________ became the United States' second largest trading partner.
a. 0 Canada, Venezuela
b. 0 Canada, Mexico
c. 0 Mexico, Canada
d. 0 Mexico, Venezuela
e. 0 Great Britain, Paraguay
66. Which of these parties are considered when decisions are made utilizing stakeholder ethical theory?
a. 0 Shareholders
b. 0 Customers
c. 0 Employees
d. 0 All of these are considered when using stakeholder theory
67. Which of the following statements is true concerning international selection practices?
a. 0 Structured interviews are popular in all countries
b. 0 Beliefs about how one should conduct an interpersonal interview are consistent across countries.
c. 0 The use of educational qualifications in screening candidates seems to be a universal practice.
d. 0 Policies and practices do not require modification from one country to the next.
e. 0 Groups are typically much more effective at selecting candidates in individualistic cultures.
Social/Political
International business
Ethics and social responsibility
Diversity and culture
65. Although the U.S. has had a longstanding agreement with ___________, after the passage of NAFTA _________ became the United States' second largest trading partner.
a. 0 Canada, Venezuela
b. 0 Canada, Mexico
c. 0 Mexico, Canada
d. 0 Mexico, Venezuela
e. 0 Great Britain, Paraguay
66. Which of these parties are considered when decisions are made utilizing stakeholder ethical theory?
a. 0 Shareholders
b. 0 Customers
c. 0 Employees
d. 0 All of these are considered when using stakeholder theory
67. Which of the following statements is true concerning international selection practices?
a. 0 Structured interviews are popular in all countries
b. 0 Beliefs about how one should conduct an interpersonal interview are consistent across countries.
c. 0 The use of educational qualifications in screening candidates seems to be a universal practice.
d. 0 Policies and practices do not require modification from one country to the next.
e. 0 Groups are typically much more effective at selecting candidates in individualistic cultures.
STR Accounting Section A
Accounting Section
Accounting
Relevant cost
Theory of constraints
Special order
Make or buy
Transfer pricing
Sell or process further
Resource planning and analysis
Forecasting
Cash budgeting
Variance analysis
Cost-Volume-Profit (CVP) analysis
Cost behavior
Break-even analysis
Target profit
Product costing
Absorption vs. variable
Activity-based
Process vs. job-order
Standard
Byproduct
Financial reporting and analysis
Financial statements
Financial ratios
Regulatory environment
46. Which one of the following is a cost that would NOT likely be associated with computer-integrated manufacturing?
a. 0 Manufacturing overhead associated with allocation of equipment depreciation
b. 0 Direct labor costs of a welder on the production floor
c. 0 Manufacturing overhead associated with allocation of the plant lease to the latest production run
d. 0 Direct materials cost with several fuse plates for a new automobile
47. If a plant is operating at full capacity and receives a one-time opportunity to accept an order at a special price below its usual price, then
a. 0 only variable costs are relevant.
b. 0 fixed costs are not relevant.
c. 0 the order will likely be accepted.
d. 0 the order will likely be rejected.
48. Tex's Manufacturing Company can make 100 units of a necessary component part with the following costs:
Direct Materials $60,000
Direct Labor 10,000
Variable Overhead 30,000
Fixed Overhead 20,000
If Tex's Manufacturing Company purchases the component externally, $15,000 of the fixed costs can be avoided. At what external price for the 100 units is the company indifferent between making or buying?
a. 0 $120,000
b. 0 $85,000
c. 0 $115,000
d. 0 $100,000
49. Transfer prices should be set in such a way as to
a. 0 discourage the internal sales of goods and services
b. 0 reflect the actual costs, including opportunity costs, of the transfer
c. 0 eliminate profits on the transfer
d. 0 reflect market prices
51. Tucson Corporation has a joint process that produces three products: X, Y, and Z. Each product may be sold at split-off or processed further and then sold. Joint- processing costs for a year amount to $100,000. Other relevant data are as follows:
Separate Processing
Sales Value Costs after Sales Value
Product at Split off Split off at Completion
X $128,000 $16,000 $160,000
Y 75,000 26,000 99,000
Z 32,600 20,000 50,000
Once product X is produced, processing it further will cause profits to
a. 0 increase by $32,000
b. 0 decrease by $16,000
c. 0 decrease by $32,000
d. 0 increase by $16,000
51. A _____ gives the expected sales under a given set of conditions.
a. 0 sales prediction
b. 0 sales budget
c. 0 budget forecast
d. 0 sales forecast
52. The projection of financial position at the end of the budget period is found on the
a. 0 budgeted income statement
b. 0 cash budget
c. 0 budgeted balance sheet
d. 0 sales budget
53. Black Company planned to produce and sell 900 units at a total cost of $180,000. Actual production was 900 units at a cost of $170,000, Black Company was
a. 0 efficient
b. 0 inefficient
c. 0 effective
d. 0 ineffective
54. Cost behavior analysis applies to
a. 0 retailers
b. 0 wholesalers
c. 0 manufacturers
d. 0 all entities
55. A company sells a product which has a unit sales price of $5, a unit variable cost of $3, and total fixed costs of $120,000. The number of units the company must sell to break even is
a. 0 60,000 units
b. 0 24,000 units
c. 0 240,000 units
d. 0 40,000 units
56. The amount by which actual or expected sales exceeds break-even sales is referred to as
a. 0 contribution margin
b. 0 unanticipated profit
c. 0 margin of safety
d. 0 target net income
57. There is no difference between variable-costing and absorption-costing income if there is no
a. 0 beginning inventory
b. 0 ending inventory
c. 0 change in inventory level
d. 0 variable overhead cost
58. An example of an activity cost pool is
a. 0 machine hours
b. 0 setting up machines
c. 0 number of setups
d. 0 number of inspections
59. Which of these best reflects a distinguishing factor between a job order cost system and a process cost system?
a. 0 The detail at which costs are calculated
b. 0 The time period each covers
c. 0 The number of work in process accounts
d. 0 The manufacturing cost elements included
60. Identify which statement below about currently attainable standards is false
a. 0 They allow for normal spoilage and nonproductive time.
b. 0 Because they allow for waste, they usually result in favorable variances.
c. 0 They represent projections of what will probably be attained.
d. 0 Employees usually view these goals as resonable
61. Join costs are incurred
a. 0 before the production process is started
b. 0 before individual products are separately identified
c. 0 after the split-off point but before the process-further decision
d. 0 after the process-further decision
62. The ____________ is NOT one of the three major financial statements
a. 0 statement of cash flows
b. 0 income statement
c. 0 balance sheet
d. 0 statement of equity position
63. _____ are profitability ratios.
a. 0 Gross profit rate and return on sales
b. 0 Dividend payout and rate of return in invested capital
c. 0 Earnings per share and dividend yield
d. 0 Price earnings and current ratio
64. Which of the following statements is false regarding the Sarbanes-Oxley Act (SOX) of 2002?
a. 0 The Act calls for increased oversight responsibilities for boards of directors.
b. 0 The Act has resulted in increased penalties for financial fraud by top management.
c. 0 The Act calls for decreased independence of outside auditors reviewing corporate financial statements.
d. 0 The Act is meant to decrease the likelihood of unethical corporate behavior
Accounting
Relevant cost
Theory of constraints
Special order
Make or buy
Transfer pricing
Sell or process further
Resource planning and analysis
Forecasting
Cash budgeting
Variance analysis
Cost-Volume-Profit (CVP) analysis
Cost behavior
Break-even analysis
Target profit
Product costing
Absorption vs. variable
Activity-based
Process vs. job-order
Standard
Byproduct
Financial reporting and analysis
Financial statements
Financial ratios
Regulatory environment
46. Which one of the following is a cost that would NOT likely be associated with computer-integrated manufacturing?
a. 0 Manufacturing overhead associated with allocation of equipment depreciation
b. 0 Direct labor costs of a welder on the production floor
c. 0 Manufacturing overhead associated with allocation of the plant lease to the latest production run
d. 0 Direct materials cost with several fuse plates for a new automobile
47. If a plant is operating at full capacity and receives a one-time opportunity to accept an order at a special price below its usual price, then
a. 0 only variable costs are relevant.
b. 0 fixed costs are not relevant.
c. 0 the order will likely be accepted.
d. 0 the order will likely be rejected.
48. Tex's Manufacturing Company can make 100 units of a necessary component part with the following costs:
Direct Materials $60,000
Direct Labor 10,000
Variable Overhead 30,000
Fixed Overhead 20,000
If Tex's Manufacturing Company purchases the component externally, $15,000 of the fixed costs can be avoided. At what external price for the 100 units is the company indifferent between making or buying?
a. 0 $120,000
b. 0 $85,000
c. 0 $115,000
d. 0 $100,000
49. Transfer prices should be set in such a way as to
a. 0 discourage the internal sales of goods and services
b. 0 reflect the actual costs, including opportunity costs, of the transfer
c. 0 eliminate profits on the transfer
d. 0 reflect market prices
51. Tucson Corporation has a joint process that produces three products: X, Y, and Z. Each product may be sold at split-off or processed further and then sold. Joint- processing costs for a year amount to $100,000. Other relevant data are as follows:
Separate Processing
Sales Value Costs after Sales Value
Product at Split off Split off at Completion
X $128,000 $16,000 $160,000
Y 75,000 26,000 99,000
Z 32,600 20,000 50,000
Once product X is produced, processing it further will cause profits to
a. 0 increase by $32,000
b. 0 decrease by $16,000
c. 0 decrease by $32,000
d. 0 increase by $16,000
51. A _____ gives the expected sales under a given set of conditions.
a. 0 sales prediction
b. 0 sales budget
c. 0 budget forecast
d. 0 sales forecast
52. The projection of financial position at the end of the budget period is found on the
a. 0 budgeted income statement
b. 0 cash budget
c. 0 budgeted balance sheet
d. 0 sales budget
53. Black Company planned to produce and sell 900 units at a total cost of $180,000. Actual production was 900 units at a cost of $170,000, Black Company was
a. 0 efficient
b. 0 inefficient
c. 0 effective
d. 0 ineffective
54. Cost behavior analysis applies to
a. 0 retailers
b. 0 wholesalers
c. 0 manufacturers
d. 0 all entities
55. A company sells a product which has a unit sales price of $5, a unit variable cost of $3, and total fixed costs of $120,000. The number of units the company must sell to break even is
a. 0 60,000 units
b. 0 24,000 units
c. 0 240,000 units
d. 0 40,000 units
56. The amount by which actual or expected sales exceeds break-even sales is referred to as
a. 0 contribution margin
b. 0 unanticipated profit
c. 0 margin of safety
d. 0 target net income
57. There is no difference between variable-costing and absorption-costing income if there is no
a. 0 beginning inventory
b. 0 ending inventory
c. 0 change in inventory level
d. 0 variable overhead cost
58. An example of an activity cost pool is
a. 0 machine hours
b. 0 setting up machines
c. 0 number of setups
d. 0 number of inspections
59. Which of these best reflects a distinguishing factor between a job order cost system and a process cost system?
a. 0 The detail at which costs are calculated
b. 0 The time period each covers
c. 0 The number of work in process accounts
d. 0 The manufacturing cost elements included
60. Identify which statement below about currently attainable standards is false
a. 0 They allow for normal spoilage and nonproductive time.
b. 0 Because they allow for waste, they usually result in favorable variances.
c. 0 They represent projections of what will probably be attained.
d. 0 Employees usually view these goals as resonable
61. Join costs are incurred
a. 0 before the production process is started
b. 0 before individual products are separately identified
c. 0 after the split-off point but before the process-further decision
d. 0 after the process-further decision
62. The ____________ is NOT one of the three major financial statements
a. 0 statement of cash flows
b. 0 income statement
c. 0 balance sheet
d. 0 statement of equity position
63. _____ are profitability ratios.
a. 0 Gross profit rate and return on sales
b. 0 Dividend payout and rate of return in invested capital
c. 0 Earnings per share and dividend yield
d. 0 Price earnings and current ratio
64. Which of the following statements is false regarding the Sarbanes-Oxley Act (SOX) of 2002?
a. 0 The Act calls for increased oversight responsibilities for boards of directors.
b. 0 The Act has resulted in increased penalties for financial fraud by top management.
c. 0 The Act calls for decreased independence of outside auditors reviewing corporate financial statements.
d. 0 The Act is meant to decrease the likelihood of unethical corporate behavior
Management Section A
Management Section
Management
Organizational behavior
Leadership
Teams
Conflict
Negotiation
Motivation
Human resource management
Recruiting and selection
Compensation
Employment planning
Training and development
Organizational theory
Organizational change and development
Organizational structure design
Systems thinking
Entrepreneurship/small business management
Operations planning/management science
Quantitative decision making models
Quality/process management
Supply chain logistics
Planning
Control
Service management
15. Which of the following roles focus on bringing about order and consistency by drawing up formal plans?
a. 0 Leadership
b. 0 Management
c. 0 Task structure
d. 0 Initiating structure
e. 0 None of these
16. Which is NOT one of the most common types of teams?
a. 0 Problem-solving
b. 0 Interdepartmental
c. 0 Self-managed
d. 0 Virtual
e. 0 Cross-functional
17. What is one of the views of conflict?
a. 0 The traditional view
b. 0 The human interactions view
c. 0 The relationist view
d. 0 The functional view
e. 0 The persuasive view
18. The terms negotiation and _____ are used interchangeably.
a. 0 win-lose
b. 0 bargaining
c. 0 collaboration
d. 0 accommodating
19. In Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, what is the term used for the drive to become what one is capable of becoming?
a. 0 Perfection
b. 0 Self-actualization
c. 0 Hypo-glorification
d. 0 Self-esteem
e. 0 Attainment
20. The best way for an employer to find out if a potential employee can do a job is by
a. 0 using the interview process
b. 0 using a written test
c. 0 having them spend a day in the office
d. 0 administering an IQ test
e. 0 using a performance simulation test
21. Which approach to performance evaluation rank-orders employees from best to worst?
a. 0 Individual ranking
b. 0 Group order ranking
c. 0 Paired comparison
d. 0 Straight ranking
e. 0 Comparison ranking
22. Examples of on-the-job training include all of the following EXCEPT
a. 0 job rotation
b. 0 apprenticeship
c. 0 simulation centers
d. 0 understudy assignments
e. 0 formal mentoring programs
23. How would a participator best absorb information?
a. 0 Use computers to read manuals
b. 0 Watch others and imitate behaviors
c. 0 Copy what others do on computers
d. 0 Listen to an audiotape
e. 0 Gain hands-on experience
24. An example of change in competition is
a. 0 growth of e-commerce
b. 0 collapse of Enron Corporation
c. 0 iraq-U.S. war
d. 0 increased interest in urban living
e. 0 a decrease in interest rates
25. _____ defines how job tasks are formally divided, grouped, and coordinated.
a. 0 Organizational structure
b. 0 Work specialization
c. 0 Departmentalization
d. 0 Organizational behavior
e. 0 Matrix departmentation
26. Shortcuts in judging others include all of the following EXCEPT
a. 0 stereotyping
b. 0 halo effect
c. 0 projection
d. 0 self-serving bias
e. 0 the Pygmalion effect
27. Holland’s theory of personality–job fit argues that job satisfaction is highest and turnover lowest where
a. 0 personality and occupation are in agreement
b. 0 an individual is highly motivated
c. 0 salary is high
d. 0 felt emotions are displayed
e. 0 compensation is high
28. The previous forecast of 65 turned out to be four units less than the actual demand. The next forecast is 66. What would be the value of alpha if the simple exponential smoothing forecast method is being used?
a. 0 0.02
b. 0 0.4
c. 0 0.04
d. 0 0.25
e. 0 None of these
29. Five forces model is an operation-consulting tool used in the ___________ phase.
a. 0 problem definition
b. 0 data gathering
c. 0 data analysis
d. 0 cost impact
e. 0 implementation
30. According to Hau Lee, which of the following types of products need to be delivered with efficient supply-chains?
a. 0 Custom products
b. 0 Innovative products
c. 0 Grocery products
d. 0 High technology products
e. 0 Responsive products
31. The drawbacks of JIT in relation to synchronous manufacturing include all EXCEPT
a. 0 JIT is limited to repetitive manufacturing
b. 0 JIT requires a stable production level
c. 0 JIT uses a schedule to assign work to each workstation
d. 0 JIT does not allow very much flexibility in the products produced
e. 0 All of these are drawbacks of JIT
32. From an operations standpoint, the goal of the firm is to simultaneously increase throughput and inventory and reduce operating expenses.
a. 0 True
b. 0 False
33. ______________ refers to service encounters whose specifications must be developed through some interaction between the customer and the server.
a. 0 Mail contact
b. 0 Face-to-face loose specs
c. 0 Face-to-face tight specs
d. 0 Phone contact
e. 0 Face-to-Face total customization
Management
Organizational behavior
Leadership
Teams
Conflict
Negotiation
Motivation
Human resource management
Recruiting and selection
Compensation
Employment planning
Training and development
Organizational theory
Organizational change and development
Organizational structure design
Systems thinking
Entrepreneurship/small business management
Operations planning/management science
Quantitative decision making models
Quality/process management
Supply chain logistics
Planning
Control
Service management
15. Which of the following roles focus on bringing about order and consistency by drawing up formal plans?
a. 0 Leadership
b. 0 Management
c. 0 Task structure
d. 0 Initiating structure
e. 0 None of these
16. Which is NOT one of the most common types of teams?
a. 0 Problem-solving
b. 0 Interdepartmental
c. 0 Self-managed
d. 0 Virtual
e. 0 Cross-functional
17. What is one of the views of conflict?
a. 0 The traditional view
b. 0 The human interactions view
c. 0 The relationist view
d. 0 The functional view
e. 0 The persuasive view
18. The terms negotiation and _____ are used interchangeably.
a. 0 win-lose
b. 0 bargaining
c. 0 collaboration
d. 0 accommodating
19. In Maslow’s hierarchy of needs, what is the term used for the drive to become what one is capable of becoming?
a. 0 Perfection
b. 0 Self-actualization
c. 0 Hypo-glorification
d. 0 Self-esteem
e. 0 Attainment
20. The best way for an employer to find out if a potential employee can do a job is by
a. 0 using the interview process
b. 0 using a written test
c. 0 having them spend a day in the office
d. 0 administering an IQ test
e. 0 using a performance simulation test
21. Which approach to performance evaluation rank-orders employees from best to worst?
a. 0 Individual ranking
b. 0 Group order ranking
c. 0 Paired comparison
d. 0 Straight ranking
e. 0 Comparison ranking
22. Examples of on-the-job training include all of the following EXCEPT
a. 0 job rotation
b. 0 apprenticeship
c. 0 simulation centers
d. 0 understudy assignments
e. 0 formal mentoring programs
23. How would a participator best absorb information?
a. 0 Use computers to read manuals
b. 0 Watch others and imitate behaviors
c. 0 Copy what others do on computers
d. 0 Listen to an audiotape
e. 0 Gain hands-on experience
24. An example of change in competition is
a. 0 growth of e-commerce
b. 0 collapse of Enron Corporation
c. 0 iraq-U.S. war
d. 0 increased interest in urban living
e. 0 a decrease in interest rates
25. _____ defines how job tasks are formally divided, grouped, and coordinated.
a. 0 Organizational structure
b. 0 Work specialization
c. 0 Departmentalization
d. 0 Organizational behavior
e. 0 Matrix departmentation
26. Shortcuts in judging others include all of the following EXCEPT
a. 0 stereotyping
b. 0 halo effect
c. 0 projection
d. 0 self-serving bias
e. 0 the Pygmalion effect
27. Holland’s theory of personality–job fit argues that job satisfaction is highest and turnover lowest where
a. 0 personality and occupation are in agreement
b. 0 an individual is highly motivated
c. 0 salary is high
d. 0 felt emotions are displayed
e. 0 compensation is high
28. The previous forecast of 65 turned out to be four units less than the actual demand. The next forecast is 66. What would be the value of alpha if the simple exponential smoothing forecast method is being used?
a. 0 0.02
b. 0 0.4
c. 0 0.04
d. 0 0.25
e. 0 None of these
29. Five forces model is an operation-consulting tool used in the ___________ phase.
a. 0 problem definition
b. 0 data gathering
c. 0 data analysis
d. 0 cost impact
e. 0 implementation
30. According to Hau Lee, which of the following types of products need to be delivered with efficient supply-chains?
a. 0 Custom products
b. 0 Innovative products
c. 0 Grocery products
d. 0 High technology products
e. 0 Responsive products
31. The drawbacks of JIT in relation to synchronous manufacturing include all EXCEPT
a. 0 JIT is limited to repetitive manufacturing
b. 0 JIT requires a stable production level
c. 0 JIT uses a schedule to assign work to each workstation
d. 0 JIT does not allow very much flexibility in the products produced
e. 0 All of these are drawbacks of JIT
32. From an operations standpoint, the goal of the firm is to simultaneously increase throughput and inventory and reduce operating expenses.
a. 0 True
b. 0 False
33. ______________ refers to service encounters whose specifications must be developed through some interaction between the customer and the server.
a. 0 Mail contact
b. 0 Face-to-face loose specs
c. 0 Face-to-face tight specs
d. 0 Phone contact
e. 0 Face-to-Face total customization
Marketing-Sample A
STR/581 Sample Final Examination
This Sample Examination represents the Final Examination that students complete in Week Six. As in the following Sample Examination, the Final Examination includes questions that assess the course objectives. Although the Sample Examination includes one question per objective, the Final Examination includes three questions per course objective.
Marketing Section
Marketing
Strategic marketing
Metrics and control mechanisms-CLV (Customer Lifetime Value)
Environmental scanning and marketing planning
Innovation
Buyer behavior
Consumer and business purchasing processes
Factors influencing consumer and business purchasing
Segmentation
Market research
Competitive intelligence
Problem formulation
Managerial decision making
Target segments and marketing mix
Specifying target markets
Pricing
Products/services (new product development, brand management, positioning)
Promotion (integrated marketing communication)
Channels and distribution/supply chain
1. ____________ is the totality of features and characteristics of a product or service that bear on its ability to satisfy stated or implied needs
a. 0 Performance
b. 0 Value
c. 0 Quality
d. 0 Customer retention
e. 0 Customer loyalty
2. Marketers need to be aware of threats and opportunities associated with four trends in the natural environment. All of the following are among those trends EXCEPT
a. 0 The shortage of raw materials
b. 0 The increased cost of energy
c. 0 Near 90 percent corporate support for green causes
d. 0 Increased pollution levels
e. 0 The changing role of governments
3. ________ is any good, service, or idea that is perceived by someone as new. The idea may have a long history, but it is new to the person who sees it as such.
a. 0 A product
b. 0 An innovation
c. 0 A new idea
d. 0 A creative product
e. 0 None of these
4. In market-penetration pricing, the company’s objective in pricing is to ________, believing that higher sales volume will lead to lower unit costs and higher long-run profits.
a. 0 block competitive launches
b. 0 maximize their market share
c. 0 minimize their market share
d. 0 maximize volume
e. 0 none of the above
5. Most companies will ________ their list price and give discounts and allowances for early payments, volume purchases, and off-season buying.
a. 0 list two prices
b. 0 increase
c. 0 reduce
d. 0 adjust
e. 0 none of these
6. If a marketer decides to segment a market based on neighborhoods, the marketer will have chosen the ________ method of segmentation.
a. 0 demographic
b. 0 psychographic
c. 0 geographic
d. 0 cultural
e. 0 social class
7. ________ is the systematic design, collection, analysis, and reporting of data and findings relevant to a specific marketing situation facing the company.
a. 0 Marketing intelligence
b. 0 MIS (marketing information system)
c. 0 Marketing research
d. 0 Demographics
e. 0 Marketing management
8. Companies undertake surveys to learn about people’s knowledge, ________, preferences, and satisfaction, and to measure these magnitudes in the general population.
a. 0 beliefs
b. 0 psyche
c. 0 inner id
d. 0 deepest secrets
e. 0 intelligence and literacy
9. Designing a research plan calls for decisions on all of the following EXCEPT
a. 0 drafting research objectives
b. 0 data sources
c. 0 research approaches
d. 0 research instruments
e. 0 sampling plans
10. Procter & Gamble has many soap brands. One reason for this is that soap users tend to group together in terms of preferences such as bleaching action, softness, stain-removal, and so on. Which of the following preferences pattern would most likely apply to P&G’s method of response to market needs?
a. 0 Homogeneous preferences
b. 0 Diffused preferences
c. 0 Clustered preferences
d. 0 Psychological preferences
e. 0 Cultural preferences
11. Companies price their products in a number of ways. Small companies’ prices are set by the boss; in larger companies, pricing is handled by division and product-line managers. In industries where price is a key factor, companies often establish a ________ department reporting to other internal departments.
a. 0 financial
b. 0 pricing
c. 0 sales
d. 0 marketing
e. 0 distribution
12. Most new-product activity is devoted to ________ existing products.
a. 0 improving
b. 0 coordinating
c. 0 distributing
d. 0 pricing
e. 0 marketing
13. Modern marketing calls for more than developing a good product, pricing it attractively, and making it accessible. Companies must also ________ present and potential stakeholders, and the general public.
a. 0 attract
b. 0 reach
c. 0 relate to
d. 0 advertise to
e. 0 communicate with
14. Intermediaries include retailers, ________, and logistical organizations.
a. 0 Internet companies
b. 0 wholesalers
c. 0 competitors
d. 0 box stores
e. 0 none of these
This Sample Examination represents the Final Examination that students complete in Week Six. As in the following Sample Examination, the Final Examination includes questions that assess the course objectives. Although the Sample Examination includes one question per objective, the Final Examination includes three questions per course objective.
Marketing Section
Marketing
Strategic marketing
Metrics and control mechanisms-CLV (Customer Lifetime Value)
Environmental scanning and marketing planning
Innovation
Buyer behavior
Consumer and business purchasing processes
Factors influencing consumer and business purchasing
Segmentation
Market research
Competitive intelligence
Problem formulation
Managerial decision making
Target segments and marketing mix
Specifying target markets
Pricing
Products/services (new product development, brand management, positioning)
Promotion (integrated marketing communication)
Channels and distribution/supply chain
1. ____________ is the totality of features and characteristics of a product or service that bear on its ability to satisfy stated or implied needs
a. 0 Performance
b. 0 Value
c. 0 Quality
d. 0 Customer retention
e. 0 Customer loyalty
2. Marketers need to be aware of threats and opportunities associated with four trends in the natural environment. All of the following are among those trends EXCEPT
a. 0 The shortage of raw materials
b. 0 The increased cost of energy
c. 0 Near 90 percent corporate support for green causes
d. 0 Increased pollution levels
e. 0 The changing role of governments
3. ________ is any good, service, or idea that is perceived by someone as new. The idea may have a long history, but it is new to the person who sees it as such.
a. 0 A product
b. 0 An innovation
c. 0 A new idea
d. 0 A creative product
e. 0 None of these
4. In market-penetration pricing, the company’s objective in pricing is to ________, believing that higher sales volume will lead to lower unit costs and higher long-run profits.
a. 0 block competitive launches
b. 0 maximize their market share
c. 0 minimize their market share
d. 0 maximize volume
e. 0 none of the above
5. Most companies will ________ their list price and give discounts and allowances for early payments, volume purchases, and off-season buying.
a. 0 list two prices
b. 0 increase
c. 0 reduce
d. 0 adjust
e. 0 none of these
6. If a marketer decides to segment a market based on neighborhoods, the marketer will have chosen the ________ method of segmentation.
a. 0 demographic
b. 0 psychographic
c. 0 geographic
d. 0 cultural
e. 0 social class
7. ________ is the systematic design, collection, analysis, and reporting of data and findings relevant to a specific marketing situation facing the company.
a. 0 Marketing intelligence
b. 0 MIS (marketing information system)
c. 0 Marketing research
d. 0 Demographics
e. 0 Marketing management
8. Companies undertake surveys to learn about people’s knowledge, ________, preferences, and satisfaction, and to measure these magnitudes in the general population.
a. 0 beliefs
b. 0 psyche
c. 0 inner id
d. 0 deepest secrets
e. 0 intelligence and literacy
9. Designing a research plan calls for decisions on all of the following EXCEPT
a. 0 drafting research objectives
b. 0 data sources
c. 0 research approaches
d. 0 research instruments
e. 0 sampling plans
10. Procter & Gamble has many soap brands. One reason for this is that soap users tend to group together in terms of preferences such as bleaching action, softness, stain-removal, and so on. Which of the following preferences pattern would most likely apply to P&G’s method of response to market needs?
a. 0 Homogeneous preferences
b. 0 Diffused preferences
c. 0 Clustered preferences
d. 0 Psychological preferences
e. 0 Cultural preferences
11. Companies price their products in a number of ways. Small companies’ prices are set by the boss; in larger companies, pricing is handled by division and product-line managers. In industries where price is a key factor, companies often establish a ________ department reporting to other internal departments.
a. 0 financial
b. 0 pricing
c. 0 sales
d. 0 marketing
e. 0 distribution
12. Most new-product activity is devoted to ________ existing products.
a. 0 improving
b. 0 coordinating
c. 0 distributing
d. 0 pricing
e. 0 marketing
13. Modern marketing calls for more than developing a good product, pricing it attractively, and making it accessible. Companies must also ________ present and potential stakeholders, and the general public.
a. 0 attract
b. 0 reach
c. 0 relate to
d. 0 advertise to
e. 0 communicate with
14. Intermediaries include retailers, ________, and logistical organizations.
a. 0 Internet companies
b. 0 wholesalers
c. 0 competitors
d. 0 box stores
e. 0 none of these
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